Q1. Which three are true about the tools for diagnosing
Oracle Database failure situations?
A. RMAN can always repair corrupt blocks.
B. The ADR command-line utility (ADRCI) can
package incident information to send to Oracle Support.
C. Flashback commands help
with repairing physical errors.
D. The ADR can store metadata in an Oracle Database repository.
E. The Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR)
has a separate home directory for each instance of each Oracle product that is
installed and uses it.
F. The Data Recovery Advisor uses the ADR.
Answer: BEF
Explanation/Reference:
If failures are diagnosed, then they are
recorded in the Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR), which is
a directory structure stored outside of the database.
ADRCI is a command-line tool that is part
of the fault diagnosability infrastructure introduced in Oracle Database 11g. ADRCI
enables you to:
- View diagnostic
data within the Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR).
- View Health
Monitor reports.
- Package incident
and problem information into a zip file for transmission to Oracle Support.
Each
instance of each product stores diagnostic data underneath its own ADR home
directory (see ADR Home). For example, in an Oracle Real Application Clusters
(Oracle RAC) environment with shared storage and Oracle ASM, each database
instance and each Oracle ASM instance has a home directory within the ADR. The
ADR's unified directory structure enables customers and Oracle Support to
correlate and analyze diagnostic data across multiple instances and multiple
products.
If failures are diagnosed, then they are
recorded in the Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR), which is a directory
structure stored outside of the database. You can use Data Recovery Advisor to
generate repair advice and repair failures only after failures have been
detected by the database and stored in ADR.
Q2. While backing up to an SBT channel, you determine that
the read phase of your compressed Recovery Manager (RMAN) incremental level 0
backup is a bottleneck.
FORCE LOGGING is enabled for the database.
Which two could improve read performance?
A. Increase the size of the
database buffer cache.
B. Enable asynchronous disk I/O.
C. Disable FORCE LOGGING for
the database.
D. Increase the level of RMAN multiplexing.
E. Increase the size of tape
I/O buffers.
Answer: BD
Explanation/Reference:
- During a backup, an RMAN channel reads the blocks from the input
files into I/O disk buffers… The allocation of the input buffers depends
on how the files are multiplexed.
- When the disk I/O is synchronous, a server process can perform only
one task at a time. When the disk I/O is asynchronous, a server process
can begin an I/O operation and then perform other work while waiting for the
I/O to complete. RMAN can also begin multiple I/O operations before waiting for
the first to complete.
RMAN uses its own buffer cache separate from the database buffer cache
If slaves are used all rman buffers go into LARGE POOL
otherwise, the PGA is used
From 9i onwards, memory used by rman INPUT buffers is capped at 16Mb.
Disk output buffers default to a total of 4*1Mb.
Tape output buffers default to 4*256Kb.
You can improve performance by increasing the degree of
multiplexing used for backing up. This increases the rate at which RMAN
fills tape buffers, which makes it more likely that buffers are sent to the
media manager fast enough to maintain streaming.
RMAN Restore Performance from Tape is Very Poor (Doc ID 850988.1)
Q3. Examine these queries and their output:
SQL> select
log_mode from v$database;
LOG_MODE
-----------
ARCHIVELOG
SQL> select property_name, property_value
2 from
database_properties where property_name like '%UNDO%';
PROPERTY_NAME PROPERTY_VALUE
-------------------- ----------------------
LOCAL_UNDO_ENABLED FALSE
SQL> select
p.name, f.file#, t.name
2 from
v$containers p, v$datafile f, v$tablespace t
3
where p.con_id=f.con_id
4 and
p.con_id=t.con_id
5 and
t.ts#=f.ts#
6 order
by 1, 2;
NAME FILE# NAME
-------- ------
-------
CDB$ROOT 1 SYSTEM
...
PDB1 24 SYSTEM
...
PDB2 16
SYSTEM
After a system crash, an instance restart
and an attempted opening of the PDBs result in:
SQL> startup
quiet
ORACLE instance
started.
Database mounted.
Database opened.
SQL> alter
pluggable database all open;
alter pluggable
database all open
*
ERROR at line 1:
ORA-01157: cannot
identify/lock datafile 24 - see DBWR trace file
ORA-01110:
datafile 24:
'/u01/oradata/V122CDB1/516000726D464D04E054000C29704164/datafile/o1_mf_system_dmj30kld.dbf'
Which two are true?
A. Datafile 24 must be recovered while the CDB is opened.
B. Datafile 24 must be recovered while PDB2 is closed.
C. Datafile 24 can be recovered while PDB2 is
opened.
D. Datafile 24 cannot be recovered while the CDB is opened.
E. Datafile 24 can be recovered while CDB$ROOT
and PDB$SEED are opened.
Answer: CE
Explanation/Reference:
You can perform complete
recovery of one or more PDBs without affecting operations of other open PDBs.
Q4. Which three actions will add a resource to an Oracle
Restart configuration?
A. Creating an Oracle Database service by modifying the
SERVICE_NAMES parameter
B. Creating a database
service using DBMS_SEVICE.CREATE_SERVICE
C. Creating a disk group using the CREATE DISKGROUP
SQL statement
D. Creating a database service using Oracle
Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA)
E. Creating an Oracle Automatic Storage
Management (ASM) instance with ASM Configuration Assistant (AMCA)
F. Creating a database using
the CREATE DATABASE statement
Answer: CDE
Explanation/Reference:
https://docs.oracle.com/en/database/oracle/oracle-database/19/admin/configuring-automatic-restart-of-an-oracle-database.html#GUID-2AED50FD-C9C4-4187-8BD8-5113B6735A4A
Table 4-2 Create Operations and the Oracle Restart Configuration
|
Create Operation |
Created Component
Automatically Added to Oracle Restart Configuration? |
|
Create a database with OUI or DBCA |
Yes |
|
Create
a database with the CREATE DATABASE SQL statement |
No |
|
Create an Oracle ASM instance with OUI, DBCA, or ASMCA |
Yes |
|
Create a disk group (any method) |
Yes |
|
Add
a listener with NETCA |
Yes |
|
Create
a database service with SRVCTL |
Yes |
|
Create
a database service by modifying the SERVICE_NAMES initialization parameter |
No |
|
Create
a database service with DBMS_SERVICE.CREATE_SERVICE |
No |
|
Create
a standby database |
No |
Q5. Which three
are true about recovery operations done without using Recovery Manager (RMAN)?
A. A lost SPFILE can be recovered from memory
using SQL*PLUS.
B. A lost index tablespace can be re-created without performing any recovery.
C. A lost PFILE can be
re-created from alert.log using SQL*PLUS.
D. A lost password file can be re-created with SQL*PLUS.
E. A lost TEMPFILE must always be re-created manually.
F. A lost password file can be manually
re-created with the orapwd utility.
Answer: ABF
Explanation/Reference: https://www.thegeekdiary.com/how-to-recover-from-lost-or-missing-database-parameter-files-pfile-or-spfile/
SQL> create spfile='spfileCDB_02.ora' from memory;
File created.
Find “Using
parameter settings in server-side spfile” in alertSID.log
A
tablespace that contains only indexes may be recovered without performing a
RECOVER task.
If a
data file that belongs to an index-only tablespace is lost, it may be simpler
to
re-create the tablespace and re-create the indexes.
Q6. Examine this configuration:
1. CDB1 is an Oracle Database 12c Release 2
container database (CDB).
2. PDB1 and PDB2 are two pluggable
databases (PDBs) in CDB1.
After successfully performing all the
pre-upgrade tasks, you execute these commands from the Oracle Database 18c
environment:
$ export
ORACLE_SID=cdb1
$ sqlplus / as
sysdba
SQL> STARTUP
UPGRADE;
SQL> SHOW pdbs
CON_ID
CON_NAME OPEN MODE RESTRICTED
------
----------- ---------- ----------
2 PDB$SEED MIGRATE
YES
3 PDB1 MOUNTED
YES
4 PDB2 MOUNTED
YES
SQL> ALTER
PLUGGABLE DATABASE pdb1 OPEN UPGRADE;
Pluggable
database altered.
SQL> exit
$ $ORACLE_HOME/perl/bin/perl
catctl.pl -C 'PDB2'
What is the outcome?
A. Only CDB$ROOT, PDB$SEED,
and PDB2 are upgraded.
B. It fails because PDB$SEED
is in MIGRATE state.
C. It fails because PDB2 is
not in UPGRADE state.
D. Only CDB$ROOT and
PDB$SEED are upgraded.
E. CDB$ROOT, PDB$SEED, PDB1,
and PDB2 are upgraded.
F. Only CDB$ROOT, PDB$SEED, and PDB1 are
upgraded.
Answer: F
Explanation/Reference:
# cd $ORACLE_HOME/rdbms/admin
# $ORACLE_HOME/perl/bin/perl
catctl.pl
-c Inclusion list of containers. Run filename in the quoted,
space separated argument list of
containers only, omitting
all other containers of the CDB. For
example,
Unix:
-c 'PDB1 PDB2'
Windows:
-c "PDB1 PDB2"
This switch is mutually exclusive with
-C
-C Exclusion
list of containers. Run filename in all
containers
in the CDB, EXCEPT those explicitly
listed in the quoted, space
separated argument. For example,
Unix:
-C 'CDB$ROOT PDB3'
Windows:
-C "CDB$ROOT PDB3"
This switch is mutually exclusive with
-c
Q7. Which three capabilities require the use of the RMAN
recovery catalog?
A. Using the REPORT SCHEMA command to list a
database’s data files and tablespaces at times in the past
B. Using the KEEP FOREVER clause with the
BACKUP command
C. Using the REPORT SCHEMA
command to list a database’s current data files and tablespaces
D. Creating customized
reports about a single database’s backups
E. Using RMAN stored scripts
F. Creating encrypted
backups
Answer: ABE
Explanation/Reference:
Reasons to Use a Recovery Catalog
ü Stores
more historical information than the control file
ü Enables
you to use RMAN stored scripts
ü Enables
you to create customized reports for all registered targets
ü Enables
you to use the KEEP FOREVER clause
of the BACKUP command
ü Allows
you to list the data files and tablespaces that are or were in the target
database at a given time
ü Makes it much easier to
restore and recover following the loss of the control file because it preserves
RMAN repository metadata
The REPORT SCHEMA command lists the
tablespaces and data files in the target database. If you add the option of AT
[time|scn|logseq], you can see the information at some time in the past. You
can use the AT option only if you are using a recovery catalog.
- atClause: This subclause specifies a point in time as a time, SCN, or
log sequence number. You must be connected to a recovery catalog when
issuing a REPORT SCHEMA command with an AT clause.
- A recovery catalog
is only required for KEEP FOREVER. No other KEEP options require
a catalog.
- You can use a
stored script as an alternative to a command file for managing frequently used
sequences of RMAN commands. The script is stored in the recovery
catalog rather than on the file system.
Q8. Which two are true about backup set compression using
RMAN default compression?
A. Unused blocks below the high water mark are
backed up.
B. Compressed backups cannot have a section size defined.
C. Binary compression adds CPU overhead to
backup operations.
D. Compression can be done only for locally managed tablespaces.
E. Compressed backups can be
written only to media.
Answer: AC
Explanation/Reference:
RMAN can perform binary compression on any
backup set that is generated.
• It can be performed in addition to unused block compression.
• Available compression algorithms are HIGH, MEDIUM, LOW, and BASIC.
• No extra steps are required by the DBA to restore a compressed
backup.
You do not have to perform any additional
steps when restoring a compressed backup. Note, however, that compression and
decompression operations require CPU resources. So both creating and restoring
a compressed backup will probably take longer and require more system
resources.
When choosing an algorithm, consider your
disk space in addition to dynamic system resources such as CPU and memory.
You can configure compression per device
type or individually for a backup set as shown in the slide.
Q9. Which three are performed by Oracle Automatic Storage
Management (ASM) instances?
A. Acting as an I/O server
to read data file blocks from ASM disks on behalf of database server processes
B. Acting as an I/O server
to write data file block to ASM disks on behalf of Database Writer processes
(DBWn)
C. Mounting disk groups
D. Managing extent
allocation for Oracle database segments
E. Managing space allocation for Oracle ASM
files
F. Managing Allocation Units (AUs) for disk group content
Answer: CEF
Explanation/Reference:
- Oracle ASM
instances mount disk groups to make Oracle ASM files available to
database instances; Oracle ASM instances do not mount databases.
- The Oracle ASM instance manages the metadata and provides space
allocation for the Oracle ASM files.
- An allocation unit
is the fundamental unit of allocation within a disk group. A file extent
consists of one or more allocation units. An Oracle ASM file consists of one or
more file extents.
Q10. Which three are true about using Database Upgrade
Assistant (DBUA) to upgrade a database?
A. A whole database backup must exist before upgrade
B. DBUA must be launched from the target Oracle
Home
C. the Pre-Upgrade Information Tool script is
executed by DBUA.
D. All pluggable databases are automatically
upgraded as part of a container database upgrade.
E. Multiple
databases with the same ORACLE_HOME can be upgraded simultaneously.
F. The database must be opened in read-only mode.
Answer: BCD
Explanation/Reference:
DBUA runs the Pre-Upgrade Information Tool
as part of the prerequisite checks it performs before starting the upgrade.
Consider the following points when you
select a database to upgrade:
• You
can upgrade only one database at a time.
• Oracle DBUA lists
the databases only from the current ORACLE_HOME. If you have installed Oracle
Database software 12c Release 2 in a separate home, then run Oracle DBUA
from 12.2 Oracle Home.
• If the user running
Oracle DBUA does not have SYSDBA privileges and OS-based authentication is not
enabled, then you need to provide the username and password to enable SYSDBA
privileges for the database.
- Start Oracle
Database Upgrade Assistant (DBUA) from the Oracle home where the new
database software is installed. The dbua executable is located in the
directory path ORACLE_HOME/bin.
- If the selected database is a multitenant container database (CDB),
then DBUA displays the Pluggable Databases window. The Pluggable Databases
window lists the pluggable databases contained in the CDB. The listed PDBs
are upgraded as part of the upgrade for the selected CDB.
- If the database
instance is not running, then DBUA tries to start the instance. If the instance
is up and running, then DBUA connects to it.
Q11. Examine in this configuration:
1. CDB1 is a container database.
2. APP_ROOT is an application root in CDB1.
3. APP_PDB1 is an application PDB in
APP_ROOT.
4. FLASHBACK DATABASE is ON .
You execute these commands:
$ sqlplus
sys/oracle_4U@localhost:1521/cdb1
SQL> SELECT
current_scn FROM v$database;
CURRENT_SCN
-----------
2074756
SQL> CREATE
TABLE cdb1_tab(c1 NUMBER);
Table created.
SQL> ALTER
SESSION SET CONTAINER=app_root;
Session altered.
SQL> CREATE
TABLE app_root_tab(c1 NUMBER);
Table created.
SQL> ALTER
SESSION SET CONTAINER=app_pdb1;
Session altered.
SQL> CREATE
TABLE app_pdb1_tab(c1 NUMBER);
Table created.
SQL> conn / as
sysdba
Connected.
SQL> ALTER
PLUGGABLE DATABASE app_root close;
Pluggable
database altered.
SQL> FLASHBACK
PLUGGABLE DATABASE app_root TO SCN 2074756;
Flashback
complete.
Which table or set of tables will exist
after the Flashback operation has completed?
A. CDB1_TAB only
B. CDB1_TAB and APP_PDB1_TAB
C. none of the tables,
because all three tables will be dropped
D. CDB1_TAB, APP_ROOT_TAB,
and APP_PDB1_TAB
E. CDB1_TAB and APP_ROOT_TAB
Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
Performing a flashback operation on the
application root reverts only the application root to the specified point in
time.
Q12. You issued this command :
RMAN> BACKUP RECOVERY AREA FORCE;
Which three are true?
A. All
files in any previous FRA dead have not yet been backed up, are backed
up.
B. All Oracle recovery files normally written
to the FRA and which have not yet been backed, are backed up.
C. All Oracle recovery files normally written
to the FRA and which have been backed up already to the current FRA, are backed
up.
D. All
files in the current fast recovery area (FRA) that have not yet been
backed up, are backed up.
E. All
flies in the current FRA get have been backed up already, are backed up.
F. All
files in any previous FRA that have been backed up already, are backed
up.
G. All Oracle recovery files normally written to
the FRA and which have been backed up already to in any previous FRA, are
backed up.
Answer: BCG
Explanation/Reference:
BACKUP RECOVERY AREA : Backs up recovery files created in the
current and all previous fast recovery area destinations.
There are two ways to back up recovery data. The BACKUP RECOVERY
AREA command backs up all files that are found in the current and any previous
fast recovery areas.
Note: RMAN backs up only database files:
data files, control files, SPFILES, archive log files, and backups of these
files. Placing an operating system file in the fast recovery area does not
cause it to be included with a backup of the recovery area.
Q13. Which three are true about thresholds, metrics, and
server-generated alerts?
A. A space usage management alert is
automatically cleared after the underlying problem is resolved.
B. They are generated by
SMON when a tablespace is 97% full.
C. Metrics are statistical counts for specific
unit.
D. Cleared stateful alerts are displayed by
querying DBA_ALERT_HISTORY.
E. All metrics are instance
related.
F. STATISTICS_LEVEL must be
set to ALL to generate alerts.
Answer: ACD
Most
alerts, such as the CPU Utilization alert, are cleared automatically when the
cause of the problem disappears
Metrics
are statistical counts per unit. The unit could be a time measure, such as
seconds, or per transaction, or session.
Background processes periodically flush the data to the Automatic
Workload Repository to capture a history of metric values.
Q14. Which three are true about recovering tables using
RMAN?
A. RMAN can recover tables
in the SYSAUX tablespace.
B. RMAN can recover tables owned
by the SYS user.
C. RMAN can recover tables owned by the SYSTEM
user.
D. RMAN can recover tables
in a standby database.
E. RMAN always use an auxiliary instance.
F. RMAN can recover a table after a DDL
operation has altered the table structure.
G. RMAN can cover tables in
the SYSTEM tablespace.
Answer: CEF
Explanation/Reference:
RMAN creates an auxiliary database
that it uses during the process of recovering the specified tables or table
partitions. Multiple techniques are available to specify the location of
auxiliary database files.
Recovering tables and table partitions from
RMAN backups is useful in the following scenarios:
· …..
· You
want to recover data that is lost after a DDL operation modified the
structure of tables. Using Flashback Table is not possible because a DDL
was run on the tables between the desired point in time and the current time.
Flashback Table cannot rewind tables through structural changes such as a truncate
table operation.
The limitations include the following:
· Tables
and table partitions belonging to SYS schema cannot be recovered.
· Tables
and table partitions from SYSTEM and SYSAUX tablespaces cannot
be recovered.
· Tables
and table partitions on standby databases cannot be recovered.
· Tables
with named NOT NULL constraints cannot be recovered with the REMAP option.
Q15. Which three are true about a whole database backup?
A. It can be inconsistent.
B. It is the only possible backup type for a database in NOARCHIVELOG
mode.
C. It can consist of either backup sets or
image copies.
D. It always includes all data files, the current control file,
the server parameter file, and archived redo logs.
E. It can be consistent.
F. It can be created only by using RMAN.
Answer: ACE
Explanation/Reference:
Q16. Which
three are two about interpreting Recovery Manager (RMAN) error stacks returned
to standard output?
A. Media Management errors
appear as a line with "sbtio" and a number.
B. Some messages in the error stack are not
errors.
C. If an
RMAN command fails, the output will only identify the command that failed.
D. Media Management errors
appear as a line with "sbtio".
E. Media Management errors appear as a line
with "Additional information" and a number.
F. If an RMAN command fails,
the output will identify the channel ID where the failure occurred.
Answer: BEF
Explanation/Reference:
Note the
following tips and suggestions while interpreting RMAN messages:
· Read the messages from the bottom
up, because this is the order in which RMAN issues the messages. The last one
or two errors displayed in the stack are often the most informative.
· When you are using an SBT 1.1
media management layer and you are presented with SBT 1.1 style error messages
containing the "Additional information:" numeric error
codes, look for the ORA-19511 message that follows for the text of error
messages passed back to RMAN by the media manager. These messages identify the
real failure in the media management layer.
· Look for the RMAN-03002 or RMAN-03009 message
(RMAN-03009
equals RMAN-03002
but includes the channel ID), immediately following the error banner. These
messages indicate which command failed. Syntax errors generate RMAN-00558.
· Identify the basic type of error
according to the error range chart in Table 24-2 and then refer to
the error messages for information about the most important messages.
Output
example:
ORA-19507: failed to retrieve sequential file,
handle="c-140148591-20031014-06", parms=""
ORA-27007: failed to open file
Additional information: 7000
Additional information: 2
ORA-19511: Error received from media manager layer, error text:
SBT error = 7000, errno = 0,
sbtopen: backup file not found
Q17. Which three are true in Oracle 19c in later releases?
A. Tablespaces always remain in read/write mode during transportable
tablespace operations.
B. Simultaneous data pump jobs can be limited
at the pluggable database (PDB) level.
C. A transportable data pump import can leave a
plugged-in tablespace in read/write mode.
D. An ordinary data pump
export of a table with encrypted columns will always
encrypt the same columns when imported.
E. Tablespaces never remain in read/write mode during transportable
tablespace operations.
F. A transportable data pump import can leave a
plugged-in tablespace in read-only mode.
Answer: BCF
Explanation/Reference:
https://www.oracle.com/a/tech/docs/19c-oracle-data-pump-whats-new.pdf
https://docs.oracle.com/en/database/oracle/oracle-database/19/refrn/MAX_DATAPUMP_JOBS_PER_PDB.html
MAX_DATAPUMP_JOBS_PER_PDB determines the maximum number of concurrent Oracle Data Pump jobs
per PDB.
Oracle
Database 19c introduces a new transform parameter, OMIT_ENCRYPTION_CLAUSE, which
directs Data Pump to suppress any encryption clause associated with objects
using encrypted columns.
• OMIT_ENCRYPTION_CLAUSE:N: Generates
a create object DDL that includes the related encryption attribute clauses.
This is the default behavior.
• OMIT_ENCRYPTION_CLAUSE:Y: Generates a create object DDL
that does not include any encryption attribute clause
The OMIT_ENCRYPTION_CLAUSE
parameter is
not allowed during transportable import jobs
Q18. Which three are true about Automatic Workload
Repository (AWR) and Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) in an Oracle
multitenant environment?
A. No
AWR data is stored in the CDB$ROOT SYSAUX tablespace.
B. AWR snapshots can be created in a PDB.
C. AWR snapshots can be created in CDB$ROOT.
D. All
AWR data is stored in the CDB$ROOT SYSAUX tablespace.
E. ADDM can run in a nonroot container.
F. AWR reports can be
generated while connected to any container.
Answer: BCE
Explanation/Reference:
- ADDM can run automatically
on a PDB after the AWR snapshots are enabled in the PDB. AWR snapshots are not
enabled by default on a PDB.
- CDBs and individual PDBs can
store, view, and manage AWR data. You can take an AWR snapshot at the CDB level
or at the PDB level.
- AWR snapshots on a PDB are
stored in the PDB, whichever tablespace is defined. No one can view
PDB
snapshots from the CDB root for security purposes.
- To use ADDM in a
PDB, you must enable automatic AWR snapshots in the PDB by setting the
AWR_PDB_AUTOFLUSH_ENABLED initialization parameter to TRUE and AWR snapshot
interval greater than 0.
Note:
· ADDM is
enabled by default in a CDB root.
· ADDM does
not work in a PDB by default, because automatic AWR snapshots are disabled by
default in a PDB. To use ADDM in a PDB, you must enable automatic AWR snapshots
in the PDB.
· A user whose
current container is the CDB root can view ADDM results for the entire CDB. The
ADDM results can include information about multiple PDBs. ADDM results related
to a PDB are not included if the PDB is unplugged. The ADDM results stored on
the CDB root cannot be viewed when the current container is a PDB.
· ADDM results
on a PDB provide only PDB-specific findings and recommendations. A user whose
current container is a PDB can view ADDM results for the current PDB only. The
ADDM results exclude findings that apply to the CDB as a whole, for example,
I/O problems relating to the buffer cache size.
· Enabling AWR
snapshots on a PDB does not change the ADDM report on the CDB root.
· AWR data on
a PDB cannot be accessed from the CDB root.
Starting
Database 19c, it is possible to specify another tablespace to store the AWR
data collected from all the source databases.
Q19. Which three are true about block media recovery?
A. To use it, Flashback
Database must be enabled.
B. A block being recovered is not accessible.
C. It cannot repair logical corruption.
D. The data file containing the block being
recovered remains online.
E. It can be performed on noncorrupt blocks.
F. The target database for
which one or more blocks are to be recovered must
be in the OPEN state.
Answer: BCD
Explanation/Reference:
The target database must run in ARCHIVELOG mode and be open or
mounted with a current control file.
Block media recovery:
• Lowers the mean time to recover (MTTR)
• Increases availability during media recovery
– The data file remains online during recovery.
– Only blocks being recovered are inaccessible.
• Is invoked using the RMAN RECOVER...BLOCK command
– Restores blocks by using flashback logs and full or level 0 backups
– Media recovery is performed using redo logs.
• The V$DATABASE_BLOCK_CORRUPTION
view displays blocks marked corrupt.
Logical corruption:
The block has a valid checksum, the header and footer match, and so
on, but the contents are logically inconsistent. Block media recovery may
not be able to repair all logical block corruptions. In these cases,
alternate recovery methods, such as tablespace point-in-time recovery, or
dropping and re-creating the affected objects, may repair the corruption.
Enables affected data files to remain online during recovery :
Without block media recovery, if even a single block is corrupt,
then you must take the data file offline and restore a backup of the data file.
You must apply all redo generated for the data file after the backup was
created. The entire file is unavailable until media recovery completes. With
block media recovery, only the blocks actually being recovered are unavailable
during the recovery.
Example:
RMAN> RECOVER datafile 108 block 1;
RMAN can only recover blocks marked media
corrupt. The V$DATABASE_BLOCK_CORRUPTION view indicates which blocks in a file
were marked corrupt since the most recent BACKUP or BACKUP ... VALIDATE command
was run against the file.
Q20. Which two are true about the Program Global Area (PGA)
and its management in an Oracle database instance?
A. Sorts and Hash Join use PGA memory.
B. The private SQL area (UGA) is located in the
System Global Area (SGA) when using shared servers.
C. The entire PGA is located in the System Global Area (SGA) when
using shared servers.
D. PGA_AGGREGATE_LIMIT is a
hard limit on the PGA size for any one session.
E. The private SQL area (UGA)
is located in the System Global Area (SGA) when using dedicated
servers.
Answer: AB
Explanation/Reference:
PGA_AGGREGATE_LIMIT specifies a limit on
the aggregate PGA memory consumed by the instance.
Q21. A database is configured in ARCHIVELOG mode.
Full RMAN backups are taken daily and no
backup to trace has been taken of the control file.
A media failure has occurred.
In which two scenarios is complete recovery
possible?
A. after losing the SYSTEM tablespace
B. after losing an archived log from before the
most recent backup
C. when any archived log from,
before, or after the most recent backup is corrupt
D. after losing all copies
of the control file
E. after losing an archived
log from after the most recent backup
Answer: AB
Explanation/Reference:
Q22. Which two are true about Oracle
Grid Infrastructure for a Standalone Server?
A. It must be installed before the Oracle database software
is installed.
B. It supports volume management, file system,
and automatically restart capabilities.
C. It can manage database resources on the server where it is installed
or on a different server.
D. It
requires Oracle Automatic Storage Management (ASM) components to be installed
separately.
E. The CSS daemon runs from the Grid
Infrastructure home.
Answer: BE
Explanation/Reference:
- Oracle Grid
Infrastructure for a standalone server is a version of Oracle Grid
Infrastructure that supports single instance databases. This support
includes volume management, file system, and automatic restart capabilities.
Oracle Grid Infrastructure for a standalone server includes Oracle Restart and
Oracle Automatic Storage Management.
- If
you want to use Oracle ASM or Oracle Restart, then you should install Oracle Grid
Infrastructure for a standalone server before you install and create the
database. Otherwise, you must install Oracle Restart, and then manually
register the database with Oracle Restart.
The Oracle Grid Infrastructure home includes Oracle Restart and Oracle
Automatic Storage Management (Oracle ASM) software.
When you install Oracle Grid Infrastructure for a stand-alone
server, the Oracle Universal Installer (OUI) configures a single-node version
of Oracle Cluster Synchronization Services (CSS). CSS is a daemon process that
enables synchronization between an Oracle ASM instance and the database
instances that rely on it for database file storage. The CSS daemon is
installed in and runs from the Oracle Grid Infrastructure home.
Q23. A database is configured in ARCHIVELOG mode.
A full RMAN backup exists but no control
file backup to trace has been taken.
A media failure has occurred.
In which two scenarios is incomplete
recovery required?
A. after losing an SYSAUX tablespace data file
B. after losing all members
of an INACTIVE online redo log group
C. after losing all members of the CURRENT
online redo log group
D. after losing an UNDO tablespace that is in use
E. after losing on copies of the control file
Answer: CE
Explanation/Reference:
Note: If you re-create a
control file, then it is not necessary to use the OPEN RESETLOGS option after
recovery when the online redo logs are accessible.
Q24. Which two are true about the automatic execution of
operating system scripts when performing silent mode installation starting from
Oracle Database 19c?
A. The response file can specify the root of sudo password.
B. Silent install always runs operating scripts automatically.
C. The installer will prompt for the root or
sudo password.
D. The response file can specify the path of
the sudo program.
E. The response file must contain the root or sudo password.
Answer: CD
Explanation/Reference:
(D105110GC10)
Silent Mode Installation
In silent mode installation, the user
specifies values for the following variables in the response file used by the runInstaller executable:
· oracle.install.db.rootconfig.executeRootScript=TRUE/FALSE
· oracle.install.db.rootconfig.configMethod=SUDO/ROOT
· oracle.install.db.rootconfig.sudoPath=<path of the sudo program>
· oracle.install.db.rootconfig.sudoUserName=<sudo
user name>
The root or sudo password cannot be
specified in the response file. The installer prompts for the passwords on
the console. The user has to provide the passwords to the installer using
these prompts.
https://docs.oracle.com/en/database/oracle/oracle-database/19/tutorial-install-oracle-database-with-automatic-root-scripts-execution/files/db.rsp
Q25. A schema owner truncated a table in error and must
recover the data.
Which Oracle Flashback feature could be
used to recover the data?
A. FLASHBACK
TABLE
B. FLASHBACK
VERSION QUERY
C. FLASHBACK DATABASE
D. FLASHBACK
TRANSACTION
E. FLASHBACK DATA ARCHIVE
Answer: E
Explanation/Reference:
You can’t do certain operations (such as
DROP or TRUNCATE) on tables where you’ve enabled Flashback Data Archive.
Furthermore, you can’t modify historical data; this ensures the validity and
consistency of the archive data.
Q26. Which two at true about RMAN Multisection backups
when a very large data file is divided into four sections?
A. The four sections must be image copies.
B. Each of the file sections
must be processed serially.
C. The four sections must be contained in backup sets.
D. The four sections can be created in
parallel.
E. The four sections can be created serially.
Answer: DE
Explanation/Reference:
multisection backup:
An RMAN backup set in which each backup
piece contains a file section, which is a contiguous range of blocks in a data
file. A multisection backup set contains multiple backup pieces, but a
backup set never contains only a part of a data file.
You create a multisection backup by
specifying the SECTION SIZE parameter on the BACKUP command. An RMAN channel
can process each file section independently, either serially or in parallel.
Thus, in a multisection backup, multiple channels can back up a single file.
Q27. Which three actions are performed by Oracle Preinstallation
RPM, oracle-database-server-xxxx-preinstall, for Oracle Grid Infrastructure, where
xxxx is the Oracle version and release?
A. creating the oraInventory (oinstall) group
B. creating the OSDBA (dba) group
C. configuring the OS for
Oracle Automatic Storage Management shared storage access
D. performing checks to
ensure minimum configuration requirements for Oracle Grid Infrastructure are
met
E. creating the grid OS user
F. creating the oracle OS user
Answer: ABF
Explanation/Reference:
When installed, the Oracle
Preinstallation RPM does the following:
- Automatically downloads and
installs any additional RPM packages needed for installing Oracle Grid
Infrastructure and Oracle Database, and resolves any dependencies
- Creates an oracle user,
and creates the oraInventory (oinstall) and OSDBA (dba) groups
for that user
- As needed, sets sysctl.conf
settings, system startup parameters, and driver parameters to values based on
recommendations from the Oracle Preinstallation RPM program
- Sets hard and soft resource
limits
- Sets other recommended
parameters, depending on your kernel version
- Sets numa=off in the kernel
for Linux x86_64 machines.
Q28. Which two are true about duplicating pluggable
databases (PDBs) with RMAN?
A. The auxiliary instance is
automatically created with ENABLE_PLUGGABLE_DATABASE = TRUE.
B. All tablespaces belonging
to a PDB must be duplicated when duplicating the
PDB.
C. CDB$ROOT and PDB$SEED are automatically
duplicated if a PDB is duplicated.
D. Two or more PDBS can be duplicated with the
same RMAN DUPLICATE command.
E. A user with SYSDBA or SYSBKUP
must use RMAN logged into a PDB in order to
duplicate it.
Answer: CD
Explanation/Reference:
When you duplicate one or more PDBs, RMAN also
duplicates the root (CDB$ROOT) and the CDB seed (PDB$SEED). The resulting
duplicate database is a fully functional CDB that contains the root, the CDB
seed, and the duplicated PDBs.
You can duplicate a single PDB, a set of
PDBs, or a set of tablespaces within a PDB by using the DUPLICATE command.
DUPLICATE … SKIP
TABLESPACE 'tablespace_name ', ...
To duplicate PDBs, you must log in to the root
of the CDB as a user with the SYSDBA or SYSBACKUP privilege.
When duplicating a PDB to a new CDB, you must create the auxiliary
instance as a CDB. To do so, start the auxiliary instance with the declaration enable_pluggable_database=TRUE
in the initialization parameter file.
Q29. Which two are true about RMAN duplexed backup sets?
A. They can be written only to disk.
B. They must be written to media.
C. They can be written to media.
D. They can be created only by using the COPIES option of a BACKUP command.
E. They can be created by using the RMAN
CONFIGURE command to specify duplexing before taking backup.
Answer: CE
Explanation/Reference:
You can use BACKUP ... COPIES or
CONFIGURE ... BACKUP COPIES to duplex backup sets. RMAN can
duplex backups to either disk or tape, but cannot duplex backups
to tape and disk simultaneously.
Q30. Which two are true about RMAN backups when using a
media manager?
A. By default, a request for a proxy copy may
result in a backup set being created.
B. A media manager is required to create RMAN
proxy copies.
C. A media manager is
required to create RMAN image copies.
D. A media manager always
writes RMAN requested backups to tape.
E. The media manager layer (MML)
routines provided by Oracle support any vendors' media management products.
Answer: AB
Explanation/Reference:
During a proxy copy, RMAN turns over control of the data transfer to
a media manager that supports this feature. Proxy copy can only be
used with media managers that support it and cannot be used with
channels of type DISK.
The
Oracle Media Management Layer (MML) API lets third-party vendors build media
management software that works with RMAN to allow backups to sequential media
devices such as tape drives.
Oracle does not certify media manager vendors for
compatibility with RMAN. Questions about availability, version compatibility,
and functionality can only be answered by the media manager vendor, not Oracle.
Note:The sbt and sbt_tape device types are
synonymous, but RMAN output always displays sbt_tape whether the input is sbt
or sbt_tape.
Q31. Which
three are true about using Database Resource Manager in an Oracle multitenant
environment?
A. A CDB-level resource plan
is mandatory when using PDB-level resource plans.
B. A CDB-level resource plan can limit session
CPU utilization.
C. A PDB-level resource plan can limit session
PGA memory.
D. PDB-level resource plans
can limit uncommitted UNDO per consumer group.
E. A CDB-level resource plan can limit PDB CPU
utilization.
F. A CDB-level resource plan
can limit PDB UNDO use.
Answer: BCE
Explanation/Reference:
You
can specify utilization limits for CPU and parallel execution servers.
Utilization limits for a PDB are set by the CDB resource plan.
CPU : The CPU utilization limit for
sessions connected to a PDB is set by the utilization_limit parameter in
subprograms of the DBMS_RESOURCE_MANAGER package. The utilization_limit
parameter specifies the percentage of the system resources that a PDB can use.
The value ranges from 0 to 100.
You
can use PDB lockdown profiles to specify PDB initialization parameters that
control resources, such as SGA_TARGET and PGA_AGGREGATE_LIMIT. A lockdown
profile prevents the PDB administrator from modifying the settings.
To limit the
CPU, Exadata I/Os, and parallel servers (PARALLEL_SERVER_TARGET initialization
parameter) usage of each PDB, you can create a plan directive using the
UTILIZATION_LIMIT parameter expressed as a percentage of the system resources
the PDB can use. Resource Manager throttles the PDB sessions
so that the CPU, Exadata I/Os, and parallel servers utilization for the PDB
does not exceed the utilization limit. In the slide example, PDB1 gets a maximum
of 30% of the system CPU, Exadata I/Os bandwidth, and available parallel
servers for the CDB instance.
A more advanced method uses the MEMORY_LIMIT parameter and the MEMORY_MIN
parameter. Both of these parameters are
a percentage of PGA limits, buffer cache and shared pool sizes.
· Specify that
different PDBs should receive different shares of the system resources so that
more resources are allocated to the more important PDBs
· Limit the
CPU usage of a particular PDB
· Limit the
number of parallel execution servers that a particular PDB can use
· Limit the
memory usage of a particular PDB
· Specify the
amount of memory guaranteed for a particular PDB
· Specify the
maximum amount of memory a particular PDB can use
· Use PDB
performance profiles for different sets of PDB
A
performance profile for a set of PDBs can specify shares of system resources,
CPU usage, and number of parallel execution servers. PDB performance profiles
enable you to manage resources for large numbers of PDBs by specifying Resource
Manager directives for profiles instead of individual PDBs.
· Limit the
resource usage of different sessions connected to a single PDB
· Limit the
I/O generated by specific PDBs
· Monitor the
resource usage of PDBs
Q32. Which
three are true about RMAN archival backups with the RESTORE POINT clause?
A. The ARCHIVAL attribute for a backup
overrides the RMAN retention policy.
B. They can optionally be written to a fast recovery area
(FRA).
C. The SPFILE is included in the archival
backup.
D. All
archive logs are retained after an archival backup is taken, until the
next archival backup is taken of the same database.
E. They are never considered obsolete by RMAN.
F. Use of a recovery catalog
is always required to support the creation and
use of archival backups.
G. Archive logs are retained if they are necessary
to allow the database to be recovered to a consistent state when an archival
backup is restored.
Answer: ACG
Explanation/Reference:
The RESTORE POINT clause issued after the backup is completed
determines the number of redo logs that are kept (enough to restore the backup
to the RESTORE POINT time).
After an archival
backup is created, it is retained for as long as specified. Even if you have a
much smaller retention window and run the DELETE OBSOLETE command, the archival
backup remains.
It automatically backs up the data files,
control file (even if the control file autobackup is disabled), and the server
parameter file.
You can specify the temporary status of the backup with the BACKUP
... KEEP UNTIL parameter. Assume that you want to make a backup and then
restore it to a new host the same day. In this case, you can specify KEEP UNTIL
TIME SYSDATE+1 to indicate that RMAN overrides the retention policy for this
backup for only one day. After one day, the backup becomes obsolete, regardless
of any configured backup retention policy.
BACKUP ... KEEP : It automatically
generates an archived redo log backup to ensure that the database backup can
be recovered to a consistent state.
You cannot use KEEP to override the
retention policy for files stored in the fast recovery area. If you specify
KEEP when backing up to the recovery area, then RMAN issues an error.
ORA-19811: cannot have files in DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST
with keep attributes
Q33. Which three are
true about an application container?
A. An application PDB can
belong to multiple application containers.
B. It can contain a single application.
C. It must have an application seed PDB.
D. Two application containers can share an
application seed PDB.
E. It must have an application root PDB.
F. It can contain multiple applications.
Answer: BEF
Explanation/Reference:
An application PDB can belong to only one application root.
The application seed is optional. After an application PDB is
created, all the statements that are used for application installation, patch,
or upgrade must be re-applied in the application PDB by synchronization.
Ensure that the following prerequisites are met before creating an
application seed :
- ….
- The application
container to which the application seed will belong
must be in read/write mode.
- For the
application seed to include the application for the application container, the
application must be installed in the application root.
Q34. In which two situations can you use Database Upgrade
Assistant?
A. when the hardware platform needs to be changed as part of the
upgrade
B. when the operating system
(OS) needs to be changed as part of the upgrade
C. when the target and source database are on
the same platform
D. when a character set conversion is required during the
upgrade
E. when multiple pluggable databases in a
container database have to be upgraded in a specific sequence
Answer: CE
Explanation/Reference:
Upgrade Method Limitations :
Both Oracle DBUA and the manual method have the following limitations:
· Target and source must be on
the same platform.
· The upgrade is an in-place
operation.
· The database stays on the same
platform.
· The operating system (OS) or
hardware cannot be changed during the upgrade.
· The OS version must be
compatible with both versions of the database.
Starting with Oracle Database 12.2, you can use DBUA to upgrade
PDBs, or upgrade PDBs manually. You can upgrade the CDB and all PDBs (an In
Parallel manual upgrade), or you can upgrade the CDB, and then upgrade PDBs
sequentially (a Sequential manual upgrade).
The Export and Import method is useful in certain cases.
· Character
set conversion may be required in some upgrade scenarios.
· …
Q35. Your container database, CDB1, is in local undo mode.
You successfully execute this command while
connected to CDB1:
CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE pdb1
ADMIN USER pdb1_admin IDENTIFIED BY pdb123 ROLES=(CONNECT)
CREATE_FILE_DEST='/u01/app/oracle/oradata/cdb1/pdb1';
which three are true about PDB1?
A. It has the same number of roles as
CDB1.
B. It has only local roles.
C. It has no local users.
D. Service PDB1 is created for remote logins to
PDB1.
E. It is in mount state after creation.
F. It has the same common users defined as does CDB1.
Answer: ADE
Explanation/Reference:
ADMIN USER: Oracle
Database creates a local user in the PDB and grants the PDB_DBA local
role to that user.
pdb_dba_roles: This clause lets you grant one or more roles to the
PDB_DBA role. Use this clause to grant roles that have the privileges
required by the administrative user of the PDB. For role, specify a predefined
role.
After you create the PDB, it is in mounted
mode, and its status is NEW.
Q36. Which three resources are always shared among CDB$ROOT
and pluggable databases (PDBs)?
A. the Process Monitor Process (PMON)
B. undo
tablespaces
C. SYSAUX
tablespaces
D. the log writer process (LGWR)
E. the data dictionary in CDB$ROOT
F. temporary
tablespaces
Answer: ADE
Explanation/Reference:
A
CDB grouping several applications has one instance, one set of background processes, one SGA allocation, and one data dictionary in
the root container, common for all PDBs, each PDB maintaining its own application
data dictionary
Q37. Which three at true about patchsets?
A. They can introduce new features.
B. They are installed via OPatch or OPatchAuto.
C. They can be applied in a
rolling fashion for Clusterware and the databases.
D. Installing a patchset is considered an
"upgrade."
E. A base release is not needed to install
patchsets.
F. They are only released quarterly.
Answer: ADE
Explanation/Reference:
Patch Sets:
· Installed via the Oracle Universal Installer (OUI) and considered
an “upgrade”
· Are full releases starting with
Oracle 11g Release 2 and don’t require a base release
· Can be applied rolling for Clusterware only and not for databases
Q38. Which two are true about Optimizer Statistics?
A. By default, they are automatically gathered
by a maintenance job.
B. They provide real-time data about schema objects.
C. They can be gathered by the DBMS_STATS
package.
D. They are gathered by the SQL Turning Advisor.
E. They are ignored by Optimizer if they are stale.
Answer: AC
Explanation/Reference:
Oracle Database has these
predefined automated maintenance tasks:
· Automatic Optimizer Statistics Collection : Collects
optimizer statistics for all schema objects in the database for which there are
no statistics or only stale statistics. The statistics gathered by this
task are used by the SQL query optimizer to improve the performance of SQL
execution.
· Optimizer Statistics Advisor
· Automatic Segment Advisor
· Automatic SQL Tuning Advisor
· SQL Plan Management (SPM) Evolve Advisor
By default, all of these
automated maintenance tasks are configured to run
in all maintenance windows.
Oracle Database
can automatically gather real-time statistics during conventional DML
operations.
Oracle Database 19c introduces
real-time statistics, which extend online support to conventional DML
statements. Because statistics can go stale between DBMS_STATS jobs, real-time
statistics help the optimizer generate more optimal plans.
You can also update and manage
optimizer statistics by manually executing DBMS_STATS.
Q39. Which two are true about reclaiming space used by Flashback
logs in Oracle Database 19c and later releases?
A. Space might be reclaimed
proactively before space pressure occurs.
B. Space is only reclaimed when there is
space pressure in the Fast Recovery Area (FRA).
C. Space is always reclaimed automatically when
the retention period for Flashback logs is lowered.
D. Space
might be reclaimed automatically when the retention period for Flashback logs
is lowered.
E. Space is always reclaimed proactively before
space pressure occurs.
Answer: CE
Explanation/Reference
With Oracle Database 19c, flashback logs beyond
the retention period are proactively deleted without degrading the
flashback performance and before there is space pressure. The flashback log
space is tracked and monitored proactively to provide flashback log
retention in a transparent manner.
----
You cannot manage the
flashback logs in the fast recovery area directly other than by setting the
flashback retention target or using guaranteed restore points.
Q40. Examine this configuration:
1. CDB1 and CDB2 are two container
databases.
2. PDB1 is a pluggable database in CDB1.
3. PDB_C1_SRV is a service for PDB1.
4. CDB1_LINK is a database link in CDB2 referring
to PDB1.
5. CDB2 is also an entry in tnsnames.ora pointing
to the CDB2 database default service.
You execute these commands successfully:
$ sqlplus
sys/oracle_4U@cdb2 as sysdba
SQL> CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE PDB1
FROM PDB1@CDB1_LINK
SERVICE_NAME_CONVERT=('PDB1_C1_SRV','PDB1_C2_SRV');
Which two are true?
A. PDB1_C2_SRV will be created but not started.
B. PDB1_C1_SRV in CDB1 will be renamed PDB1_C2_SRV.
C. PDB1 will be created in CDB2 and left in
MOUNT state.
D. PDB1_C2_SRV will be
created and started automatically.
E. PDB1 will be created in CDB2
and automatically opened.
Answer: AC
Explanation/Reference
Tested, new
service is created but not started
After you create the PDB, it is in mounted mode, and its status is
NEW.
The SERVICE_NAME_CONVERT clause of the CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE
statement renames the user-defined services of the new PDB based on the service
names of the source PDB.
Q41. Which
three are true about the Oracle Optimizer?
A. It obeys all hints.
B. It updates stale object statistics in the
Data Dictionary.
C. It can
only use SQL Plan Directives tied to the SQL statement for which a plan is
being generated.
D. It can re-optimize execution plans after
previous executions detect suboptimal plans.
E. It considers object statistics when
generating execution plans for SQL statements.
F. It considers the filters
in WHERE clauses when generating execution plans for SQL statements.
Answer: BDE
Explanation/Reference
The database stores optimizer statistics in
the data dictionary and updates or replaces them as needed
Optimizer statistics include table, column,
index, and system statistics. Statistics for tables and indexes are stored in
the data dictionary. These statistics are not intended to provide real-time
data. They provide the optimizer a statistically correct snapshot of data
storage and distribution, which the optimizer uses to make decisions on how to
access data.
System
statistics are operating system characteristics that are used by the optimizer.
These statistics are not collected automatically
SQL plan directives are not tied to a
specific SQL statement or SQL ID. The optimizer can use SQL plan directives for
SQL statements that are nearly identical because SQL plan directives are
defined on a query expression.
Q42. Which
three are true about the FLASHBACK DATABASE feature?
A. FLASHBACK LOGS are archived
after the log switch.
B. It requires that the target database be in
ARCHIVELOG mode.
C. FLASHBACK DATABASE only uses FLASHBACK LOGS
to get the database to the desired flashback time.
D. It always generates REDO
and UNDO.
E. A database can be flashed back using
SQL*PLUS.
F. Queries and DML have the
same FLASHBACK LOG overhead when flashback is enabled for a database.
Answer: BCE
Explanation/Reference
Flashback Database depends on the flashback logs to perform
the Flashback Database operation.
The database must run in ARCHIVELOG mode
Q43. The HR_ROOT Application container must support the
execution of a query on a table shared by application local PDBs PDB1 and PDB2,
and remote PDB PDB3.
Which three are true?
A. The HR_ROOT replica must exist in the remote
CDB.
B. A database link must exist in the remote CDB referring to the local CDB.
C. PDB3's
application root replica must exist in the local CDB.
D. A proxy PDB must exist in the application root in the remote CDB.
E. A proxy PDB must exist in the application
root in the local CDB.
F. A database link must exist in the local CDB
root referring to the remote CDB.
Answer: AEF
Explanation/Reference
<D103130GC10 –
Lesson 3>
An application root replica is created in the remote CDB to replicate the application root and, therefore, the application
common entities such as tables, users, and privileges.
A proxy PDB is created in the
application root in the local CDB to reference the application root replica
in the remote CDB.
The database link must be created in the CDB root that will
contain the proxy PDB; and the database link connects either to the
remote CDB root or to the remote application container or to the
remote application PDB.
Q44. On the 10th of August, you implement an incremental
database backup strategy and configure a recovery window of five days.
Level 0 backups are taken on the 10th,
17th, and 24th of August.
Differential level 1 incremental backups
are taken daily between the level 0 backups.
Today is the 26th of August.
Which backups will be obsolete?
A. All backups prior to 20th
of August
B. All backups prior to 17th of August
C. All backups prior to 24th
of August
D. All backups prior to 10th
of August
E. All backups prior to 22nd
of August
Answer: B
Explanation/Reference
RMAN does not consider any full or level 0
incremental backup as obsolete if it falls within the recovery window.
Additionally, RMAN retains all archived logs and level 1 incremental backups
that are needed to recover to a random point within the window.
- Diffential level 1 in this case:
Q45. Which two are true about various Oracle security and
auditing capabilities?
A. Application-common OLS policies can be created only if all the PDBs in the application container are closed.
B. Fine-grained auditing
(FGA) policies in an application root are automatically synchronized to all
application PDBs contained in the application container when they are updated.
C. Unified auditing can be automatically synchronized to all application
PDBs in an application container.
D. Application-common TSDP policies are always container specific.
E. Application-common
Transparent Security Data Protection (TSDP) policies can be created only if all
the PDBs in the application container are closed.
Answer: CD
Explanation/Reference
The application-common
Fine-Grained Auditing (FGA) policies that are applied in an application root
are not automatically propagated to application PDBs that belong to the
application container. The application PDBs need
to be synchronized with the application root. Otherwise, any access to an
application common object from an application PDB would not be audited in the
FGA audit trail in that application PDB.
The application-common
“application contexts” and application-common Virtual Private Database (VPD)
policies that protect the common objects that are created in an application
root are not automatically implemented in all application PDBs. The application
PDBs need to be synchronized with the application root. An application-common
VPD policy can be created only in the application root and attached to an
application common object.
Application-common
Transparent Security Data Protection (TSDP) policies can be created in an
application root but only outside the application install/upgrade/patch
BEGIN-END block. Application-common TSDP policies can be applied on both
application common objects and application root local objects. The
application-common TSDP policies that are defined in the application root on
local objects should behave as if they are local policies, meaning that they
are effective in the application root only. TSDP operations are
container-specific.
Application-common OLS
policies cannot be created in an application root either within or outside of
the application install/patch BEGIN-END block and therefore, cannot be applied
on common objects within application PDBs.
Q46. Which two are true about Oracle Database
Configuration Assistant (DBCA)?
A. It can be used to
convert a non-container database to a container database.
B. It can be used to
change the character set of an existing database.
C. It can be used to create container databases and non-container
databases.
D. It can be launched from both the command line and the Universal
Installer (OUI) interfaces.
E. It can only be
launched from the command line interface.
Answer: CD
Explanation/Reference
Q47. Which three are true about backing up the control
file?
A. It can get backed up automatically as a binary copy
B. It can be backed up manual as a trace file containing SQL statements
for control file re-creation.
C. It gets backed up automatically by RMAN when the BACKUP SPFILE
command is used.
D. It cannot
be backed up manually as a binary copy
F. It gets backed up automatically by RMAN as a trace file containing SQL
statements for control file re-creation when a database backup occurs.
Answer: ABC
Explanation/Reference
Back
up the control file to a binary file (duplicate of existing control file) using
the following statement:
ALTER
DATABASE BACKUP CONTROLFILE TO '/oracle/backup/control.bkp';
Produce
SQL statements that can later be used to re-create your control file:
ALTER
DATABASE BACKUP CONTROLFILE TO TRACE;
RMAN> backup spfile;
Starting backup at 10-OCT-20
using target database control file
instead of recovery catalog
allocated channel: ORA_DISK_1
channel ORA_DISK_1: SID=71 device
type=DISK
channel ORA_DISK_1: starting full
datafile backup set
channel ORA_DISK_1: specifying
datafile(s) in backup set
including current SPFILE in backup set
channel ORA_DISK_1: starting piece 1 at
10-OCT-20
channel ORA_DISK_1: finished piece 1 at
10-OCT-20
piece
handle=/oracle/rdbms/homes/OraDB20Home1/dbs/01vcl63e_1_1 tag=TAG20201010T210446
comment=NONE
channel ORA_DISK_1: backup set
complete, elapsed time: 00:00:01
Finished backup at 10-OCT-20
Starting Control File and SPFILE
Autobackup at 10-OCT-20
piece
handle=/oracle/rdbms/homes/OraDB20Home1/dbs/c-1391705308-20201010-00
comment=NONE
Finished Control File and SPFILE
Autobackup at 10-OCT-20
Q48. Which statement correctly describes the SQL profiling
performed by the SQL Tuning Advisor?
A. It is a set of recommendations by the
optimizer to change the access methods used.
B. It is auxiliary information collected by
the optimizer for a SQL statement to help use better joins orders.
C. It is auxiliary information collected by the optimizer for a SQL
statement to eliminate estimation error.
D. It is a set of recommendations by the
optimizer to restructure a SQL statement to avoid suboptimal execution plans.
E. It is a set of recommendations by the
optimizer to create new indexes.
Answer: C
Explanation/Reference
SQL Profiling: The optimizer verifies its own estimates and collects auxiliary
information to remove estimation errors. It builds a SQL profile by using the
auxiliary information and makes a recommendation to create it. When a SQL
profile is created, it enables the query optimizer to generate a well-tuned
plan.
Q49. A user complains about poor database performance. You
want to verify if the user's session has waited for certain types of I/O
activity.
Which view displays all waits waited on by
a session at least once?
A. V$SESSTAT
B. V$SESSION_EVENT
C. V$SESSION
D. V$SESSION_WAIT
E. V$SESSION_WAIT_CLASS
Answer: B
Explanation/Reference
V$SESSION_EVENT : This view lists
information on waits for an event by a session
Q50. Which two are true about Rapid
Home Provision of Oracle Software?
A. It can be used for applications and middleware.
B. It can be used only
for Oracle Grid Infrastructure, excluding Oracle Restart.
C.
It can be used for both Oracle Database and Oracle Grid Infrastructure, excluding Oracle Restart.
D.
It can be used for both Oracle Database and Oracle Grid Infrastructure,
including Oracle Restart.
E. It can be used only for Oracle Grid
Infrastructure, including Oracle Restart.
Answer: AD
Explanation/Reference
With Rapid Home Provisioning, you create,
store, and manage templates of Oracle homes as images (called gold images) of Oracle software, such as
databases, middleware, and applications.
Note:
Rapid
Home Provisioning does not provision, patch, or upgrade Oracle Restart, but
you can provision single-instance databases on Oracle Restart, as explained in
the subsequent section.
Q51. In performance management, which two factors might
reduce the ability of an application to scale to a larger number of users?
A. issuing multiple savepoints during a
transaction
B. the number of data files containing
extents belonging to tables updated by transaction
C. poorly written SQL
D. the number of tablespaces containing
tables updated by a transaction.
E. poorly trained users who do not commit transactions.
Answer: CE
Explanation/Reference
Scalability: The ability of an application to scale is also important. This means
that you are able to handle more and more users, clients, sessions, or
transactions without incurring a huge impact on overall system performance. The
most obvious violator of scalability is serializing operations among users. If
all users go through a single path one at a time, then, as more users are
added, there are definitely adverse effects on performance. This is because
more and more users line up to go through that path. Poorly written SQL
also affects scalability. It requires many users to wait for inefficient SQL to
complete, each user competing with the other on a large number of resources
that they are not actually in need of.
Q52. Examine this configuration:
1. CDB1 is a container database.
2. DEFAUTL_SHARING is METADATA.
3. APP_ROOT is an application root
contained in CDB1.
4. APP_PDB1 is an application PDB contained
in APP_ROOT
5. COMPANYAPP is an application contained
in APP_ROOT
6. EMP is a common table created in
APP_ROOT and all its application PDBs, created when version 1.0 of COMPANYAPP
was installed.
You execute these commands:
$ sqlplus
sys/oracle@localhost:1521/cdb1 as sysdba
SQL> ALTER
SYSTEM SET DEFAULT_SHARING=DATA;
System altered.
SQL> ALTER
SESSION SET CONTAINER=app_root;
Session altered.
SQL> ALTER
PLUGGABLE DATABASE APPLICATION companyapp BEGIN UPGRADE '1.0' TO '2.0';
Pluggable
database altered.
SQL> ALTER
TABLE emp ADD (sal NUMBER NOT NULL);
Table altered.
SQL> ALTER
PLUGGABLE DATABASE APPLICATION companyapp END UPGRADE TO '2.0';
Pluggable
database altered.
SQL> ALTER
SESSION SET CONTAINER=app_pdb1;
Session altered.
SQL> desc emp;
Name Null? Type
---- ------ --------
ENO NUMBER
ENAME VARCHAR2(20)
SQL> SELECT *
FROM emp;
ENO ENAME
---- -------
100 Alan
200 Ben
SQL> ALTER
PLUGGABLE DATABASE APPLICATION companyapp SYNC;
What will be outcome and why?
A. It will return an error because the SYNC
operation is now allowed when constraints are added to
common objects.
B. It will return an error because EMP.SAL is empty in APP_ROOT
C. SAL will be added to APP_PDB1.EMP, with
NULLs in columns of existing rows.
D. It will return an error because EMP is not empty in APP_ROOT.
E. SAL will be added to
APP_PDB1.EMP, with 0 in columns of existing rows.
Answer: D
Explanation/Reference
Before sync, the
“emp” table in app_pdb1 has 2 rows => app_root has 2 rows(the
same version 1.0)
At version 2.0,
the “emp” table in app_root is not empty, new column “sal” (NOT NULL)
cannot be added.
If “emp” table in
app_root is not empty and new column can be added, then there is no rows in app_pdb1.
Q53. Which three are true about configuring CONTROLFILE
AUTOBACKUP by using RMAN?
A. The controlfile is backed up whenever a
new tablespace is created.
B. It requires the use of
fast recovery area (FRA).
C. The control file is backed up automatically each time the SPFILE is
backed up manually.
D. The control file is
backed up whenever a new table is created.
E. The server parameter file (SPFILE) is automatically backed up each
time the control file is backed up.
F. The control file is backed up whenever an RMAN backup is
successfully recorded in the catalog.
Answer: CEF
Explanation/Reference
You can configure RMAN to automatically
back up the control file and server parameter file. The autobackup occurs
whenever a backup record is added.
The automatic backup of the control file
occurs independently of any backup of the current control file explicitly
requested as part of your backup command.
If you enable control file autobackups,
RMAN automatically backs up the control file and the current server parameter
file (if used to start up the database) under the following circumstances:
At the end of a run script
When a successful backup is recorded in the
RMAN repository
When a structural change of the database
occurs (the Oracle kernel makes the backup)
Q54. You want
to transport the UNIVERSITY tablespace from one database to another.
The UNIVERSITY tablespace is currently open
read/write.
Examine this list of steps:
1.
Make the UNIVERSITY tablespace read-only on the source system.
2. Export the UNIVERSITY tablespace
metadata using EXPDP.
3. Create a cross-platform backup set from
the UNIVERSITY tablespace on the source system, using an RMAN command that
includes the DATAPUMP clause.
4. Copy the cross-platform backup sets to
the destination system.
5. Copy the Data Pump dump set from the
source to the destination system.
6. Restore the cross-platform backup set on
the destination system using RMAN command that includes the DATAPUMP clause.
7. Import the UNIVERSITY tablespace
metadata using IMPDP.
8.
Make the UNIVERSITY tablespace read/write on the destination system.
Which are the minimum number of steps
required, in the correct order, to transport the UNIVERSITY tablespace?
A. 2,3,4,5,6,7
B. 3,4,6
C. 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8
D. 1,3,4,6,8
Answer: C
Explanation/Reference
Before you can transport your database, you
must open it in READ ONLY mode.
Tablespaces and backup sets can be
transported across platforms of different endian format, while the source
database remains online (in READ WRITE mode).
Q55. Which should be tuned first when doing a performance
tuning exercise for an Oracle Database environment?
A. general operating system health
B. database writer performance
C. SQL statements
D. log writer performance
E. database instance memory management and
sizes
Answer: A
Explanation/Reference
Oracle has developed a tuning
methodology based on years of experience. The basic steps are:
1. Check the OS
statistics and general machine health before tuning the instance to be sure
that the problem is in the database.
2. Tune from the
top down. Start with the design, then the application, and then the instance.
For example, try to eliminate full table scans that cause I/O contention before
tuning the tablespace layout on disk. This activity often requires access to
the application code.
3. Tune the area
with the greatest potential benefit. The tuning methodology presented in this
course is simple. Identify the biggest bottleneck and tune it. Repeat this
step. All the various tuning tools have some way to identify the SQL statements,
resource contention, or services that are taking the most time. The Oracle
database provides a time model and metrics to automate the process of
identifying bottlenecks. The advisors available in Oracle Database use this
methodology.
4. Stop tuning
when you meet your goal. This step implies that you set tuning goals.
This is a general approach to tuning
the database instance and may require multiple passes.
Q56. Which three are true about Automatic Workload
Repository (AWR) snapshots?
A. They are always
created manually.
B. They are generated if STATISTICS_LEVEL is set to TYPICAL.
C. They are generated if STATISTICS_LEVEL
is set to BASIC.
D. They are generated if STATISTICS_LEVEL is set to ALL.
E. They are always
created automatically.
F. They can be retained forever.
Answer: BDF
Explanation/Reference
Gathering database statistics using the AWR
is enabled by default and is controlled by the STATISTICS_LEVEL initialization parameter. The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter should be set to the TYPICAL or ALL to enable
statistics gathering by the AWR.
https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/server.112/e41573/autostat.htm#PFGRF94181
https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/ARPLS/d_workload_repos.htm#ARPLS69140
Q57. Which three are true about Rapid Home Provision of
Oracle Software?
A. It can be used to create a single-instance Oracle Database in an
already-installed Oracle home.
B. It can be used to patch existing Oracle software installations.
C. It can be used to upgrade only single-instance databases running on Oracle
Restart.
D. It can be used to create templates of
Oracle homes as gold images of only Oracle
databases.
E. It can be used only
on nodes with Oracle Grid Infrastructure installed.
F. It can be used to deploy new homes without disrupting active
databases.
Answer: ABF
Explanation/Reference
To patch an Oracle database, you move the
database home to a new home, which includes the patches you want to implement
you can use Rapid Home Provisioning to
provision, patch, and upgrade single-instance databases running on clusters or
Oracle Restart, or on single, standalone nodes.
With Rapid Home Provisioning, you create,
store, and manage templates of Oracle homes as images (called gold images) of
Oracle software, such as databases, middleware, and applications.
Q58. Which
three activities are possible for PDBs?
A. copying an application container into another application container
in a different CDB.
B. converting
an application PDB to an application seed.
C. converting an application PDB to a
regular PDB
D. converting a regular PDB to an application PDB
E. converting an
application seed to an application PDB
F. copying an application container into another application container
in the same CDB.
G. converting an
application PDB to an application root
Answer:ADF
Explanation/Reference
When
the target PDB is an application PDB or application root, you have the
following options:
- You can relocate a PDB into an application container as an
application PDB. The target PDB can be in the same CDB or a different CDB.
- You can relocate an application PDB from one application
root to another. The target PDB must be in a different CDB.
- You can relocate an empty application root from one CDB to
another, but the application root must not have any hosted application PDBs.
Q59. Examine this configuration:
1. CDB1 is a container database.
2. APP1_ROOT is an application container
contained in CDB1.
3. APP1_ROOT$SEED is the application seed
contained in APP1_ROOT and synchronized with APP1_ROOT.
4. APP1_PDB1 and APP1_PDB2 are application
PDBs contained in APP1_ROOT.
5. APP1_USER1_APP is an application
installed in APP1_ROOT at version 1.0
6. USER1 is a common user in APP1_ROOT and
all its application PDBs, created when version 1.0 of APP1_USER_APP was
installed.
You execute these commands:
$ sqlplus
sys/oracle@localhost:1521/cdb1 as sysdba
SQL> ALTER
SESSION SET CONTAINER=app1_root;
Session altered.
SQL> ALTER
PLUGGABLE DATABASE APPLICATION app1_user1_app BEGIN UPGRADE '1.0' TO '2.0';
Pluggable
database altered.
SQL> GRANT
CREATE SESSION TO USER1;
Grant succeeded.
SQL> ALTER
PLUGGABLE DATABASE APPLICATION app1_user1_app END UPGRADE TO '2.0';
Pluggable
database altered.
SQL> ALTER
SESSION SET CONTAINER=app1_pdb1;
Session altered.
SQL> ALTER
PLUGGABLE DATABASE APPLICATION app1_user1_app SYNC;
Pluggable
database altered.
Which two are true?
A. USER1 can connect only to APP1_ROOT.
B. USER1 can connect to CDB1.
C. USER1 can connect only to APP1_PDB1.
D. USER1 is defined in APP1_PDB2.
E. USER1 can connect to APP1_ROOT, APP1_ROOT$SEED, and APP1_PDB1.
F. USER1 can connect to APP1_ROOT and APP1_PDB1.
Answer: DF
Explanation/Reference
Q60. Which are
three of the steps taken by Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA) to clone a
remote pluggable database (PDB) starting from Oracle 19c.
A. creating a database link from CDB$ROOT in the remote database to be cloned
to CDB$ROOT in the local database.
B. automatically dropping the database link
to the remote database if it already exists
C. creating a database link from CDB$ROOT in the remote database to the PDB
in the local database.
D. opening the cloned PDB
E. creating a database link from CDB$ROOT in the local database to the
PDB in the remote system that is to be cloned.
F. creating a new
empty PDB in the local database from PDB$SEED
G. creating a database link from CDB$ROOT in the local
database to CDB$ROOT in the remote system that is to be cloned.
Answer: DEG
Explanation/Reference
The source PDB must not
be closed
The database link must
exist in the local CDB (not the remote CDB). The database link connects from
the local CDB to either to the root of the remote CDB or to the remote source
PDB.
<D105110GC10 – Lesson 1>
Oracle Database 19c offers to complete the
same operation by using DBCA in silent mode. The DBCA operation executes the
following steps:
1. Checks
the presence of the database link. If the database link exists, DBCA drops it.
2. Creates
the database link
3. Creates
the PDB from the remote PDB
4. Checks
the status of the cloned PDB to verify that it is in mounted mode
5. Opens
the cloned PDB
Q61. Which two are true about Oracle instance recovery?
A. Recovery
begins from the beginning of the CURRENT redo log group.
B. Recovery reads redo
until the end of the redo thread. SMON rolls back any dead transactions, and
then the database is opened.
C. Recovery
begins from the last checkpoint position that was calculated by the Database
Writer before instance failure.
D. Recovery
begins from the start of any ACTIVE redo log group or the start of the CURRENT
log group if no other group is ACTIVE.
E. Recovery begins from
the last checkpoint position that was recorded in the control file by the
checkpoint process (CKPT).
F. Recovery
reads redo until the end of the redo thread, and then opens the database. SMON
then rolls back any dead transactions.
Answer: BE
Explanation/Reference
During instance recovery, the transactions
between the checkpoint position and the end of the redo log must be applied to
data files.
Q62. Which two are true about the Automatic Database
Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM)? (Choose two.)
A. It analyzes a period of time
corresponding to the 12 hours of activity.
B. It runs automatically after each AWR snapshot.
C. A DBA can run it manually.
D. Results are written to the alert log.
E. It analyzes a period of time
corresponding to the last day of activity.
Answer: BC
Explanation/Reference
Overview of the Automatic
Database Diagnostic Monitor:
- The
Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) stores performance related statics for an
Oracle database. The Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) is a diagnostic
tool that analyzes the AWR data on a regular basis, locates root causes of any
performance problems, provides recommendations for correcting the problems, and
identifies non-problem areas of the system. Because AWR is a repository of
historical performance data, ADDM can analyze performance issues after the
event, often saving time and resources in reproducing a problem.
- To diagnose database performance problems,
first review the ADDM analysis results that are automatically created each time
an AWR snapshot is taken. If a different analysis is required (such as a longer
analysis period, using a different DBIO_EXPECTED setting, or changing the
analysis mode), you
can run ADDM manually
as described in this section.
Q63. Which three are true about Rapid Home Provisioning
(RHP), which has been available since Oracle 18c? (Choose three.)
A. It
cannot be used to provision applications.
B. It
is an Oracle Database service.
C. It can be used to
deploy Oracle Database homes.
D. It
cannot be used to provision middleware.
E. It can be used to
deploy Grid Infrastructure homes, including Oracle Restart.
F. It is an Oracle Grid Infrastructure service.
Answer: CEF
Explanation/Reference
Rapid Home Provisioning (RHP) enables you
to deploy, provision, patch, and upgrade Oracle Grid Infrastructure and Oracle
Database homes.
RHP enables mass deployment and maintenance
of standard operating environments of Oracle Database and Oracle Grid
Infrastructure, including Oracle Restart.
Rapid Home Provisioning is a service in
Oracle Grid Infrastructure.
Rapid Home Provisioning and Maintenance enables you to
install clusters, and provision, patch, scale, and upgrade Oracle Grid
Infrastructure, Oracle Restart, and Oracle Database homes.
Q64. HR_ROOT is an application container with the HR_APP
application installed.
No application PDBs and no application seed have yet been created in HR_ROOT.
An application PDB, PDB1, must be created
so that the HR_APP application's common objects are accessible to it.
Which two methods can be used?
A. Create the PDB1 application PDB and install HR_APP in it.
B. Create the PDB1 application PDB and synchronized it with HR_ROOT.
C. Create an application seed, and install HR_APP in it.
D. Create the PDB1 application PDB and synchronize it with PDB$SEED.
E. Create an application seed, synchronized it with HR_ROOT, and then
create the PDB1 application PDB.
Answer: BE
Explanation/Reference
Q65. Which three are two about upgrading an application in
an application container?
A. The upgrade must be performed when connected
to CDB$ROOT.
B. An application name and version number must
be specified to upgrade the application.
C. After an application upgrade, the
application container’s PDBs remain synchronized with the existing application
root.
D. After an application upgrade, the application container’s PDBs are automatically synchronized with the application root
clone.
E. The upgrade can be performed when connected either to CDB$ROOT or to PDB$SEED.
F. An application root clone gets created
automatically.
Answer: BCF
Explanation/Reference
At the beginning of any upgrade
operation, a new application root is automatically created, which is an
application root clone. It is primarily meant for metadata lookup.
ALTER
PLUGGABLE DATABASE APPLICATION application_name BEGIN UPGRADE
'application_start_version_number' TO 'application_end_version_number';
ALTER
PLUGGABLE DATABASE APPLICATION application_name END UPGRADE TO
'application_end_version_number';
ALTER
PLUGGABLE DATABASE APPLICATION salesapp END UPGRADE TO '4.3';
Synchronize all of the application PDBs
that must upgrade the application by issuing an ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE
APPLICATION statement with the SYNC clause.
Q66. Which three are located by using environment
variables?
A. Default
directories for temporary files used by temporary tablespaces
B. The temporary disk space used by Oracle
Installer during installation
C. The
list of disk group names to be mounted by an Oracle Automatic Storage
Management (ASM) instance at startup
D. The
maximum number of database files that can be opened by a database
instance
E. The location of Oracle Net Services
configuration files
F. The Optimal Flexible Architecture (OFA)
compliant path to store Oracle software and configuration files
Answer: BEF
Explanation/Reference
|
ORACLE_BASE |
Function: Specifies the base of the Oracle directory structure
for Optimal Flexible Architecture compliant installations. Syntax: directory_path Example: /u01/app/oracle |
|
TNS_ADMIN |
Function: Specifies the directory containing the Oracle Net
Services configuration files. Syntax: directory_path Example: $ORACLE_HOME/network/admin |
|
TEMP, TMP, and TMPDIR |
Function: Specifies the default directories for temporary
files. If set, then the tools that create temporary files create them in one
of these directories. Syntax: directory_path Example:/u02/oracle/tmp |
Q67. Which three are true about SGA memory management in a
multitenant database?
A. SGA_MIN_SIZE cannot be set for a PDB.
B. Setting SHARED_POOL_SIZE for a PDB
guarantees a minimum amount of Shared Pool memory for that PDB.
C. The SGA_TARGET setting
for a PDB cannot exceed 50% of the SGA_TARGET
value of the root container.
D. Setting SGA_TARGET for a
PDB guarantees a minimum amount of SGA memory
for that PDB.
E. Setting DB_CACHE_SIZE for a PDB guarantees a
minimum amount of Database Buffer Cache memory for that PDB.
F. The SHARED_POOL_SIZE setting for a PDB can
be up to 80% of the SHARED_POOL_SIZE setting of the root container.
Answer: BEF
Explanation/Reference
Setting SGA_MIN_SIZE for a PDB guarantees
the SGA space for the PDB.
Setting DB_CACHE_SIZE and SHARED_POOL_SIZE
guarantees minimum sizes for the PDB.
SGA_TARGET, DB_CACHE_SIZE, and
SHARED_POOL_SIZE do not work if the CDB’s MEMORY_TARGET is set.
No more than 50% of the memory can be set
aside for the PDB minimums: SGA_MIN_SIZE, DB_CACHE_SIZE, and SHARED_POOL_SIZE.
Setting an SGA_TARGET for a PDB enforces a
hard limit for the PDB’s SGA, and provides more SGA for the other containers
within the CDB. The sum of all PDBs’ SGA_TARGET does not necessarily need to be
less than the instance SGA_TARGET, but each PDB SGA_TARGET cannot exceed the
instance SGA_TARGET nor SGA_MAX_SIZE. SGA_TARGET for PDBs works only if the
CDB’s SGA_TARGET is set.
SGA_MIN_SIZE: Sets the
minimum SGA size for the PDB.
SGA_TARGET: Sets the maximum
SGA size for the PDB. The SGA_TARGET
setting in the PDB must be less than or equal to the SGA_TARGET setting in the CDB root.
The SGA_TARGET setting in the PDB is enforced only if the SGA_TARGET initialization parameter is set to a nonzero value in the CDB root.
The SGA_TARGET setting in the
PDB must be less than or equal to the SGA_TARGET setting in the CDB root
SHARED_POOL_SIZE:
If SGA_TARGET is
set at the CDB level, these requirements must be met:
The values of
DB_CACHE_SIZE plus SHARED_POOL_SIZE in a PDB must be less than or equal to 50%
of the PDB’s SGA_TARGET value.
The values of
DB_CACHE_SIZE plus SHARED_POOL_SIZE in a PDB must be less than or equal to 50%
of the SGA_TARGET value at the CDB level.
The sum of
DB_CACHE_SIZE plus SHARED_POOL_SIZE across all the PDBs in a CDB must be less than
or equal to 50% of the SGA_TARGET value at the CDB level.
Q68. Which three are true about using an RMAN Recovery
Catalog with a pluggable database (PDB) target connection in Oracle Database
19c and later releases?
A. The target PDB must be registered in a base
catalog.
B. The base catalog must be enabled for Virtual
Private Catalog use.
C. The base catalog must be
enabled by RMAN when performing point-in-time recovery for the PDB registered
in the Virtual Private Catalog.
D. The target PDB must be
registered in a Virtual Private Catalog.
E. The target PDB must be registered in both
the base catalog and the Virtual Private Catalog.
F. The base catalog owner must give the Virtual
Private Catalog access to metadata for one or more PDBs.
Answer: ABF
Explanation/Reference
The recovery catalog user has to be a
Virtual Private Catalog (VPC) user or a VPC owner. Only a VPC-enabled catalog
allows a connection to a PDB as the target database. A catalog can be
VPC-enabled when Virtual Private Database (VPD)–related grants are done, and
only if the catalog user is explicitly defined.
Using Recovery Catalog with a PDB Target
Connection: Steps
1. Create
an RMAN base catalog.
2. Register
the target database in the catalog: The catalog owner registers the target PDB
in the catalog.
3. Enable the catalog as a VPC-enabled catalog: The SYS user in the
catalog PDB enables the catalog to be VPC-enabled. Virtual Private Database
(VPD)–related grants are done to the user explicitly defined as the catalog
owner.
SQL> CONNECT
sys@catpdb AS SYSDBA
SQL>
@$ORACLE_HOME/rdbms/admin/dbmsrmanvpc.sql -vpd catowner
4. Upgrade the
catalog.
5. Create a
VPC user in the catalog PDB.
6. As the
base catalog owner, give the VPC user access to the metadata of a particular
PDB.
7. Connect to
the prod_pdb1 target PDB and to the recovery catalog as the vpc_prod_pdb1 user
to back up and restore the prod_pdb1 target PDB.
As
the base catalog owner, give the VPC user access to the metadata of a
particular PDB.
Register
database to base catalog owner -> enable VPC on base catalog – then VPC can
be used -> create vpc user in catalog db -> as base catalog owner, grant
access to the PDBs for VPC user
Q69. Examine this configuration:
1. CDB1 is a container database.
2. COMMON_USER_PREFIX is set to empty
string.
3. PDB1 is a pluggable database in CDB1.
4. APP1_ROOT is an application container in
CDB1.
5. APP1_PDB1 is an application PDB in
APP1_ROOT.
You execute these commands:
$ sqlplus sys/oracle@localhost:1521/cdb1 as sysdba
SQL> CREATE ROLE role1 CONTAINER=CURRENT;
Which is true?
A. It will return an error because creation of
a local role is not allowed in CDB$ROOT.
B. ROLE1 will be created
only in CDB$ROOT and APP1_ROOT.
C. ROLE1 will be created in
CDB$ROOT, PDB1, APP1_ROOT, and APP1_PDB1.
D. ROLE1 will be created
only in CDB$ROOT.
E. It will return an error
because common roles must start with c##.
Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
The same result for both COMMON_USER_PREFIX
is set to C## or empty string.
Q70. Which four are true about duplicating a database
using Recovery Manager (RMAN)?
A. A backup of the target database
is always required.
B. Duplication can be done by having the target
database instance push copies to the auxiliary database instance.
C. Duplication can be done by having the
auxiliary database instance pull backup sets from the target database instance.
D. A connection to the
target database instance is always required.
E. A connection to an auxiliary instance is
always required.
F. A new DBID is always created for the duplicated database.
G. A connection to the
recovery catalog instance is always required.
H. A subset of the target database can be
duplicated.
Answer: BCEH
Explanation/Reference
A duplicate database, which is a copy
of the source database (or a subset of the source database) with a unique
DBID…. A standby database is not assigned a new
DBID.
RMAN must be connected as
AUXILIARY to the instance of the duplicate database.
The instance of the duplicate database is called the auxiliary instance. The
auxiliary instance must be started with the NOMOUNT option.
A duplicate database can
include the same contents as the source database or only a subset of the
tablespaces in the source database.
Q71. Which two are true about memory advisors?
A. If Automatic Shared Memory Management is
enabled, both the SGA Advisor and PGA Advisor are always available.
B. If Automatic Memory
Management is enabled, no memory advisors are
available.
C. If Automatic Memory
Management is enabled, the Shared Pool Advisor and
Buffer Cache Advisor are available to set the maximum size for these
individual System Global Area components.
D. If Manual Shared Memory
Management is enabled, only the Shared Pool Advisor
and Buffer Cache Advisor are available.
E. All memory advisors use data from Automatic
Workload Repository.
Answer: AE
Explanation/Reference
The
Memory Advisors provide graphical analyses of total memory target settings, SGA
and PGA target settings, or SGA component size settings. You use these analyses
to tune database performance and for what-if planning. Depending on the current
memory management mode, different memory advisors are available.
· If
Automatic Memory Management is enabled, only the Memory Advisor is available.
This advisor provides advice for the total memory target for the instance.
· If
Automatic Shared Memory Management is enabled, the SGA Advisor and PGA Advisor
are available.
· If
Manual Shared Memory Management is enabled, the Shared Pool Advisor, Buffer
Cache Advisor, and PGA Advisor are available.
ASMM uses memory advisor data to evaluate the best
memory configuration and then resizes the amount of memory to be allocated for
the database buffer cache, shared pool, Java pool, large pool, and Streams pool
by using the dynamic SGA feature.
The
Memory Advisor helps you tune the size of your memory structures. You can use
the Memory Advisor only when automatic memory tuning is disabled in the
database. When ASMM is disabled, the Memory Advisor is responsible for
optimizing system memory for the database instance. Using the Memory Advisor,
you can let Oracle tune the memory according to the database needs or use the
SGA Advisor or the PGA Advisor to set the total size of the SGA or PGA and
optimal values for their components.
The Memory Advisor consists of three advisors to give you recommendations on shared pool (SGA), buffer cache (SGA), and PGA.
http://banner.tbr.edu/B28359_01/server.111/b28301/montune003.htm
Q72. How do you configure a CDB for local undo mode?
A. Open the CDB instance in upgrade mode. In
CDB$ROOT, execute ALTER DATBASE LOCAL UNDO ON, and then restart the CDB
instance.
B. Open the CDB in read-only mode. In CDB$ROOT, execute ALTER DATBASE
LOCAL UNDO ON, and then change the CDB to read/write mode.
C. Open the CDB instance in
upgrade mode. In each PDB, execute ALTER
DATABASE LOCAL UNDO ON, create an UNDO tablespace, and then restart the CDB
instance.
D. Open the CDB instance in restricted mode. In CDB$ROOT, drop the UNDO
tablespace. Execute ALTER DATABASE LOCAL UNDO ON in each PDB, and restart the
CDB instance.
E. Open the CDB instance in restricted mode. In CDB$ROOT, execute ALTER
DATABASE LOCAL UNDO ON, create UNDO tablespace in each PDB, then restart CDB
instance
Answer: A
Explanation/Reference
http://oracle-help.com/oracle-12c/oracle-12cr2/configure-and-use-the-local-undo-mode/
Q73. Which two are true about creating RMAN backups for an
Oracle container database?
A. Control file backups can
be created while connected to a nonroot container.
B. The BACKUP TABLESPACE command can back up a
PDB tablespace even if RMAN is connected to CDB$ROOT.
C. Control file backups can be created while
connected to the root container.
D. Online
Redo Log backups can be created while connected to the root container.
E. Archived Redo Log backups can be created while
connected to an application root CDB.
Answer: BC
Explanation/Reference
In
a CDB, archived redo logs can be backed up only when you connect to the root
as a common user with the SYSDBA or SYSBACKUP
privilege.
When you connect to a PDB as a local user with SYSDBA or SYSBACKUP privilege, you cannot back up or delete archived redo logs.
Q74. Which three are true about cloning databases into an
existing CDB with RMAN?
A. The target and auxiliary instance passwords
must be the same.
B. Only one PDB can be cloned at a time.
C. A user with SYSDBA or SYSBKUP must be logged
in with RMAN to CDB$ROOT when cloning a PDB.
D. A
non-CDB can be cloned into a PDB.
E. Two
or more PDBs can be cloned with the same command.
F. A user with SYSDBA or
SYSBKUP must be logged in with RMAN to the non-CDB
being cloned when cloning a non-CDB.
Answer: ABC
Explanation/Reference
Step by Step Process of Migrating non-CDBs and PDBs Using ASM for File
Storage (Doc ID 1576755.1)
You can duplicate a single PDB, a set of
PDBs, or a set of tablespaces within a PDB by using the DUPLICATE command.
To duplicate PDBs, you must log in to
the root of the CDB as a user with the SYSDBA or SYSBACKUP privilege.
Create the password file manually. Ensure
that the password for the SYSDBA and SYSBACKUP users are the same in the source
database and auxiliary instance.
Duplicating
a PDB to an existing CDB is subject to certain restrictions:
- Only active
database duplication is supported.
- Only one PDB can be
duplicated at a time.
- Duplicating a
non-CDB as a PDB in an existing CDB is not supported.
Q75. Which three are true about actions that can or cannot
be performed by users with the SYSBACKUP privilege?
A. They can create any table.
B. They can drop any tablespace.
C. They can view data from any user-defined
tables.
D. They can view data from any data dictionary
view or dynamic performance view.
E. They cannot drop tablespaces.
F. They cannot create restore points.
Answer: ACD
Explanation/Reference
ü SELECT
ANY DICTIONARY
ü SELECT
ANY TRANSACTION
ü DROP
TABLESPACE
ü CREATE
RESTORE POINT (including GUARANTEED restore points)
ü CREATE
ANY DIRECTORY
ü CREATE
ANY TABLE
Q76. Which two are true about instance recovery?
A. It is not possible if an
archived log is missing.
B. It is performed automatically while the
database remains in MOUNT state. Then the database is opened.
C. Setting
FAST_START_MTTR_TARGET to a higher value reduces instance recovery time by
causing the log writer to write more frequently, thereby reducing the number of
I/Os needed during instance recovery.
D. It is performed by the
Recovery Writer (RVWR) background process.
E. It is performed
automatically after the database is opened; however, blocks requiring recovery
are not available until they are recovered.
F. Setting FAST_START_MTTR_TARGET to a lower
value reduces instance recovery time by causing dirty buffers to be written to
disk more frequently, thereby reducing the number of I/Os needed during
instance recovery.
Answer: BF
Explanation/Reference
- Configuring the Duration of Cache
Recovery: FAST_START_MTTR_TARGET
The
Fast-Start Fault Recovery feature reduces the time required for cache
recovery, and makes the recovery bounded and predictable by limiting the number
of dirty buffers and the number of redo records generated between the most
recent redo record and the last checkpoint
The FAST_START_MTTR_TARGET parameter must be set to a value that
supports the service-level agreement for your system. A small value for the
MTTR target increases I/O overhead because of additional data file writes
(affecting the performance). However, if you set the MTTR target too large, the
instance takes longer to recover after a crash.
Q77. PDB1 and PDB2 are pluggable databases in CDB1.
Examine these commands:
$ export
ORACLE_SID=CDB1
$ sqlplus / as
sysdba
SQL> STARTUP
…
Database opened.
SQL> SHOW PDBS
CON_ID
CON_NAME OPEN MODE RESTRICTED
------
----------- ---------- ----------
2 PDB$SEED READ ONLY
NO
3 PDB1 MOUNTED
4 PDB2 MOUNTED
SQL> ALTER
PLUGGABLE DATABASE pdb1 OPEN;
Pluggable
database altered.
SQL> ALTER
PLUGGABLE DATABASE pdb1 SAVE STATE;
Pluggable
database altered.
SQL> ALTER
PLUGGABLE DATABASE pdb1 CLOSE;
Pluggable
database altered.
SQL> ALTER
PLUGGABLE DATABASE pdb2 OPEN;
Pluggable
database altered.
CDB1 is then restarted.
Which three are true?
A. PDB$SEED will be opened READ ONLY.
B. PDB$SEED will be MOUNTED.
C. PDB1 will be MOUNTED.
D. PDB2 will be MOUNTED.
E. PDB2 will be opened READ
WRITE.
F. PDB1 will be opened READ WRITE.
Answer: ADF
Explanation/Reference
Q78. You plan perform cross-platform PDB transport using
XTTS.
Which two are true?
A. The source PDB can be in MOUNT or OPEN
state.
B. The source PDB must be in MOUNT state.
C. A backup of the PDB must
exist, taken using the BACKUP command with the TO PLATFORM clause.
D. The source and target platforms must have
the same endianness.
E. Automatic conversion of
endianness occurs.
F. The source PDB must not
be an application root.
Answer: BD
Explanation/Reference
Oracle Database 12.2 includes
cross-platform PDB backup and restore into a CDB by unplugging at backup step
and plugging at restore step as long as the source platform and destination
platform have the same endian format. For a cross-endian migration, the
tablespaces have to be exported and imported with Data Pump, either using the
conventional expdp/impdp or the Full Transportable expdp/impdp.
1. Before backing
the PDB, ensure that the prerequisites are satisfied.
2. The source PDB
must be closed in MOUNTED mode and the COMPATIBLE parameter must be set to 12.2
or higher.
3. Determine the
location of the endian conversion.
1. The FOR
TRANSPORT clause creates a cross-platform backup indicating that the backup set
can be transported to any destination database.
2. The TO PLATFORM
clause indicates that the conversion performs on the source database for a
specific platform and can be restored on that specific platform.
4. Use the BACKUP
FOR TRANSPORT or TO PLATFORM command to create a cross-platform PDB backup set
on the source host. The new UNPLUG INTO clause creates the XML file containing
the metadata for the PDB.
5. Use any
operating system utilities to transfer the created backup set and XML file.
6. Use the RESTORE
FOREIGN command to restore the cross-platform PDB backup set on the destination
host. The new USING clause uses the XML file to plug the appropriate files for
the new PDB.
7. Open the PDB.
Q79. A container database (CDB) contains two pluggable
databases PDB1 and PDB2
The LOCAL_UNDO_ENABLED database property is
set to FALSE in the CDB.
Data file 24 of PDB2 was deleted and you
need to restore and recover it.
The only RMAN backup that exists was
created with the BACKUP DATABASE command while connected to CDB$ROOT.
Which three are true?
A. Datafile 24 can be recovered while connected
to CDB$ROOT.
B. Datafile 24 can be
restored only while connected to CDB$ROOT.
C. Datafile 24 can be restored and recovered
while connected to CDB$ROOT.
D. Datafile 24 can be
restored only while connected to PDB2.
E. Datafile 24 can be
recovered only while connected to PDB2.
F. Datafile 24 can be recovered while connected
to PDB2.
Answer: ACF
Explanation/Reference
Q80. Some
archived log backups have been accidentally deleted from storage.
Which two command should be used to update
the status of backups in the recovery catalog to display only the missing
backups?
A. LIST
ARCHIVELOG
B. LIST
EXPIRED
C. CROSSCHECK BACKUP OF ARCHIVELOG ALL
D. REPORT OBSOLETE
E. LIST ARCHIVELOG ALL
F. RESYNCE CATALOG
Answer: CF
Explanation/Reference:
Use the RESYNC CATALOG
command to perform a full resynchronization of metadata in a recovery catalog
schema with metadata in a target database control file. You can also use the
FROM CONTROLFILECOPY clause to resynchronize the current control file with the
RMAN metadata in a control file copy.
Q81. Which two are true about backup encryption?
A. Keystore-based encryption is the default
mode for RMAN backup encryption.
B. Backup encryption can be enabled selectively
for specific tablespaces.
C. The BACKUP BACKUPSET command can encrypt and
decrypt backup sets.
D. The Transparent Data
Encryption (TDE) keystore is backed up using RMAN.
E. Vendor-specific
media management software can be used for making encrypted RMAN backups to
media.
F. Image copies can be encrypted.
Answer: BC
Explanation/Reference
For improved security, RMAN backups
created as backup sets can be encrypted. You can see this information in the
ENCRYPTED column of the V$BACKUP_PIECE view. BACKUP BACKUPSET command can neither encrypt nor
decrypt backup sets
Image copy backups cannot be encrypted.
Configure the RMAN encryption level
(database, tablespace, or database excluding tablespaces):
https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/BRADV/rcmconfa.htm#BRADV006
Oracle Recovery Manager (Oracle RMAN) does not
back up the software keystore as part of the database backup.
If you are using Oracle Secure Backup (OSB)
to provide encryption, then OSB manages the encryption keys. This is a
different mechanism than the RMAN encryption
Q82. Which are the three steps in the SQL tuning process
for Oracle Database environments?
A. Identify poorly tuned SQL
statements using the SQL Tuning Advisor.
B. Test the application as a whole using tuned
SQL statements.
C. Tune SQL statements as a
group using SQL Tuning and SQL Access Advisors.
D. Test tuned SQL statements
one at a time for all statements in the application.
E. Identify poorly tuned SQL statements using
Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor.
F. Tune individual SQL statements using SQL
Tuning Advisor.
Answer: BEF
Explanation/Reference
SQL Tuning Process
Identify poorly tuned SQL
statements: Generally, the tuning effort that
yields the most benefit is SQL tuning. Poorly tuned SQL uses more resources
than required. This inefficiency prevents
scalability, uses more OS and database resources, and increases response time. To tune poorly tuned SQL statements, they
must be identified and then tuned. SQL statements
can be tuned individually, but often the solution that optimizes one statement
can hurt the performance of several others. The SQL statements that use the
most resources are, by definition, the
statements in need of tuning. These are statements that have the longest
elapsed time, use the most CPU, or do the most physical or logical reads.
Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) can detect high-load SQL
statements.
2. Tune
the individual statements: Tune the individual statements by checking the
optimizer statistics; check the explain plan for the most efficient access
path; test alternative SQL constructions;
and test possible new indexes, materialized views, and partitioning. SQL Tuning
Advisor and SQL Access Advisor, described later in this lesson, can help with
this task.
3. Tune
the application as a whole: Test the application as a whole by using the
tuned SQL statements. Is the overall performance better?
The methodology is sound, but tedious.
Tuning an individual statement is not difficult. Testing the overall impact of
the individual statement tuning on an application can be very difficult.
Q83. You want to install Oracle Grid Infrastructure for a
Standalone Server using Oracle Universal Installer (OUI).
There is no existing Oracle installation on
the server.
Which two are prerequisites?
A. A group called dba
B. The installation of
Oracle ASMLIB
C. An operating system user to own this
installation
D. An operating system
account called grid
E. The Oracle Inventory group oinstall
Answer: CE
Explanation/Reference
The Oracle Database, and the Oracle Grid
Infrastructure for a standalone server installation owner users must be members
of the Oracle Inventory group (oinstall).
https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/install.112/e47689/pre_install.htm#LADBI1161
Q84. Which three are true about creating container
databases (CDBs) and pluggable databases (PDBs) in Oracle 19c and later
releases?
A. A PDB snapshot can be a full copy of a
source PDB.
B. A snapshot copy PDB does not depend on an existing storage snapshot of the
source PDB.
C. A CDB can be duplicated
using the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA) in silent mode with no
configuration required before starting the duplication.
D. A CDB can be duplicated
using Recovery Manager (RMAN) with no configuration
required before starting the duplication.
E. A PDB snapshot can be a sparse copy of a
source PDB.
F. A snapshot copy PDB can
be a full copy of a source PDB.
G. A PDB snapshot depends on an existing storage
snapshot of the source PDB.
Answer: AEG
Explanation/Reference
A PDB snapshot is a point-in-time copy of a
PDB. The source PDB can be open read-only or read/write while the snapshot is
created. You can create snapshots manually using the SNAPSHOT clause of CREATE
PLUGGABLE DATABASE (or ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE), or automatically using the
EVERY interval clause. If the storage system supports sparse clones, then the
preceding command creates a sparse copy. Otherwise, the command creates a
full copy.
You can create a stand-alone clone PDB with
USING SNAPSHOT, and then create a snapshot copy PDB from the stand-alone PDB.
A
storage-level snapshot is only supported on specific file systems, the snapshot copy PDB is
dependent on the storage snapshot.
The SNAPSHOT COPY clause instructs the
database to clone the source PDB using storage snapshots.
A snapshot copy PDB does not include a
complete copy of the source data files
Duplicating a CDB :
To perform this
operation, connections to the source (TARGET) CDB1 and to the destination
(AUXILIARY) CDB2 are required.
There are a lot
of steps to perform before starting the duplicate operation itself.
Q85. Examine this configuration:
1. CDB1 is a container database running in
ARCHIVELOG mode.
2. Multiple uncommitted transactions are
running in CDB1.
3. Redo log groups 1 and 2 are INACTIVE.
4. Redo log group 3 is the CURRENT group.
All members of redo log group 3 are lost
before it is archived.
Examine these possible steps:
1. SHUTDOWN ABORT
2. STARTUP NOMOUNT
3. STARTUP MOUNT
4. ALTER DATABASE MOUNT
5. RESTORE DATABASE
6. RECOVER DATABASE NOREDO
7. RECOVER DATABASE UNTIL
AVAILABLE
8. RESTORE ARCHIVELOG ALL
9. ALTER DATABASE OPEN
10. ALTER DATABASE OPEN RESETLOGS
Choose the minimum required steps in the
correct order to recover the database.
A. 1, 2, 5, 7, 4, 10
B. 1, 3, 5, 8, 6, 10
C. 1, 3, 5, 6, 10
D. 1, 3, 5, 6, 9
Answer: C
Explanation/Reference
Q86. Your container database, CDB1, has an application
container, HR_ROOT, with an application PDB, HR_PDB1.
You have the required privilege to clone
HR_PDB1 to container database CDB2, which does not contain HR_ROOT.
Which two are always true? (Choose two.)
A. CDB1 and CDB2
must be in shared undo mode.
B. A common user must exist in
CDB2 with the CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE privilege.
C. All
transactions in HR_PDB1 of CDB1 must commit
before the cloning process starts.
D. Cloning
HR_ROOT automatically clones HR_PDB1.
E. The HR_PDB1 clone created in
CDB2 will be in mount state when cloning ends.
Answer: BE
Q87. Which four are true about performing Tablespace Point
-In-Time Recovery (TSPITR) using Recovery Manager (RMAN)?
A. It can be
performed using an auxiliary instance managed by a DBA.
B. It can be used to recover a
truncated table.
C. RMAN automatically adds any required tablespaces to the
recovery set to make it self-contained.
D. RMAN always includes tablespaces containing undo segments
in the recovery set.
E. It can be performed repeatedly
until the correct time is found without using an RMAN catalog.
F. flashback
database must be enabled for it to work.
G. It can be used to recover a
dropped tablespace.
H. It can be performed using an
auxiliary instance managed by RMAN.
Answer: BEGH
TSPITR
can be performed repeatedly to different points in time without the need for a
recovery catalog.
TSPITR can be used to recover a dropped tablespace
Recover
data lost after an erroneous TRUNCATE TABLE statement
Recover
from logical corruption of a table
Performing
RMAN TSPITR with an RMAN-Managed Auxiliary Instance
Q88. Your CDB has two regular PDBs as well as one
application container with two applicationPDBs and an application seed
No changes have been made to the standard
PDB$SEED.
How many default temporary tablespaces can
be assigned in the CDB?
A. three
B. eight
C. seven
D. six
E. five
Answer: C
Q89. Which two are true about the character sets used in
an Oracle database? (Choose two.)
A. Single-byte character sets
provide better performance than multibyte character sets.
B. Unicode enables information from any language to be
stored using a single character set.
C. Unicode is the
only supported character set for Oracle databases created using Database
Configuration Assistant (DBCA).
D.Single-byte character sets always use 7-bit encoding schemes.
E.Multibyte
character sets allow more efficient space utilization than single byte
character sets.
F.Single-byte
character sets always use 8-bit encoding schemes.
Answer: AB
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